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Was Jesus Separated from the Father? Did Jesus Die Spiritually?
This topic may be new to some but is understood
by many in the Christian faith to be a Biblical doctrine. Most Christian
preachers teach that when Jesus was on the cross and said "My God, My
God, why have You forsaken Me" (Matthew 27:46 & Mark 15:34), He was
referring to the fact that God, the Father, turned His back on Jesus because
the sin of the world was laid upon Him. They go on to teach that God cannot
look upon sin and for a moment in time the unity of the Father and Jesus was
separated on the cross. Some teach Jesus being separated from the Father
means Jesus died spiritually, but did Jesus die spiritually?
Examining What Jesus Said
Jesus said "My God, My God, why have You forsaken
Me?" recorded in Matthew 27:46 and Mark 15:34. The question is why
did Jesus say this? When Jesus said this, what exactly was He saying and
to whom was he directing this statement? What was going on around Jesus when
He said this? These are questions that give much light to what Jesus said.
In order to understand what Jesus meant I believe it is imperative to read
the Scriptures in context to properly grasp the fulfillment of what was
being stated. The Jews, at that time, were waiting for the Messiah to come
and had their own certain beliefs about who this Messiah would be. In short,
at that time the Jewish people, who were waiting for the Messiah to come,
expected Him to be a great leader and King to deliver them from the Romans.
They were not expecting a suffering Messiah and they rejected Jesus as God's
appointed Messiah and in turn had Him crucified.
Misconceptions Corrected
Isaiah 59:2 is used in reference to believe that God
the Father turned His back on Jesus and they were separated. It says "But
your iniquities have made a separation between you and your God, And your
sins have hidden {His} face from you so that He does not hear." This
does not mean that God forsook them completely or that they were rejected!
Those who teach Christ was separated from the Father because of the sin laid
upon Him, use this verse as proof. But what about Adam and Eve? They had
perfect fellowship with God in the beginning but sinned later and caused a
separation but not a rejection. Their sin did a separation but God always
cared for them, loved them and did not forsake them. This portion of
scripture is dealing with man's rebellion to God and in turn God says,
through Isaiah, that their wicked actions have caused a division between
them. Again it is true that sin can not be in the presence of God, in
heaven, not on earth! God, throughout the Bible, says that we are to turn
from our wicked ways and repent and He will forgive us. Sin has always
been present in this world since the fall of Adam and Eve, but God has
always been in the midst of His creation. He was active in many peoples'
lives in the Old Testament, even dwelling among them in clouds and His
presence in the tabernacle. God made Himself known to people, even appearing
in some type of physical form to certain individuals and groups of people.
They all were sinners and God was in their midst and He did not forsake
them. God is Holy and just and He does bring judgment upon sin. Consider
2 Chronicles 7:14 "...and My people who are called by My name humble
themselves and pray and seek My face and turn from their wicked ways, then I
will hear from heaven, will forgive their sin and will heal their land."
This is the very heart of God, even in the midst of sinners.
2 Corinthians 5:21 "He made Him who knew no sin {to
be} sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in
Him." There are those who say that this means Jesus became literal sin,
wherefore He took our sin and paid the price we deserved and was separated
from the Father. Again, Jesus was never separated from the Father. What
exactly did Jesus' death do for mankind by sacrificing His life on the
cross? The Bible states that Jesus is our Passover Lamb (1 Corinthians 5:7)
who shed His blood to make atonement and to bridge the gap from man to God.
John, the Baptist, said "Behold the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of
the world." (John 1:29) John, the Apostle, wrote "and He Himself is
our propitiation for our sins and not for ours only, but also for those of
the whole world." (1 John 2:2) Peter writes that we have been redeemed,
"but with precious blood, as of a lamb unblemished and spotless, the
blood of Christ." (1 Peter 1:19) Throughout he New Testament, Christ is
called the Lamb of God, our sacrifice, and it is He who fulfilled the
Messianic prophecies pertaining to a suffering Messiah. In Isaiah 53, is
shows where Jesus fulfilled the requirements by the Law to satisfy God as an
offering to reconcile man back to God. I suggest for you to read
Leviticus 1-7 and Isaiah 53 and see what Christ fulfilled by His shed blood.
There is no hint of anything in Scripture that Jesus actually became literally sin. Some use 2 Corinthians 5:21 to suggest this but when examined that Scripture does not state that. Here is what 2 Corinthians 5:21 says: “He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.” (NASB) Here are some Biblical reasons why Jesus did not become literally sin to make atonement for sins. Firstly, if Jesus became sin then by definition Jesus was no longer holy and would not be an unblemished sacrifice, therefore would not be worthy as a sacrifice. Secondly, the word “made” in the Greek (Strongs 4160) means: to perform, to ordain, to appoint, to execute, bring forth, fulfill, made… Clearly Jesus was to be sin in the sense of Him being appointed to be a sacrifice for sins to bring reconciliation and peace for mankind to God. It is written in Acts 2:36 that God “made” Jesus both Lord and Christ. The same word in Greek is used and any true Christian knows Jesus was Lord and the Christ before He ever came to this earth and took on flesh. The meaning clearly in Acts 2:36 would be in reference to being appointed, declared, ordained, to be Lord and Christ by God. The key in understanding this is the context of the Scriptures. As has been stated before there is no place of any sacrifice being offered to God was ever considered to become literally sin in the Old Testament. Would that change with Jesus? Jesus holy, sinless, and an unblemished sacrifice for our sins, anything less would invalidate His death on the cross. (Colossians 1:19-22, 1 Peter 1:18-19, Hebrews 4:15)
Some people believe this Scripture is proof positive that Jesus became sin in the sense of Him having sin in His body to atone for our sins. This may seem solid at first but after examining this more closely this is reading into the text without giving it the proper exegesis. In His body is in reference to the way sin was dealt with, namely through His shed blood, death on the cross, and that prophecy was being fulfilled. The word “in” in the Greek is “en” (Strongs 1722) which has various meanings: in, on, by, among, through, upon, openly, outwardly… Our sins He bore in His body meaning it was in the body of flesh that Christ came to make atonement for our sins. Another way of understanding this is simply seeing that Jesus bore our sins in His body through His shed blood that brings atonement and reconciliation. (Colossians 1:19-22) In Isaiah 53:4-5 it states: “Surely our griefs He Himself bore, And our sorrows He carried; Yet we ourselves esteemed Him stricken, Smitten of God, and afflicted. But He was pierced through for our transgressions, He was crushed for our iniquities; The chastening for our well being fell upon Him, And by His scourging we are healed.” (NASB) Notice in these verses words “Himself bore” which means to take away, lifted up, carried, which in simplicity means these griefs were going to be taken away. “He was pierced through” is pretty obvious. This means Jesus gave His life as an atonement and through His life being pierced or that He was crucified for mankind’s sins. The same is said of His being crushed meaning He was afflicted, oppressed, and humbled for our sins. Jesus came to this earth as the One to come, the Messiah, and Jesus humbled Himself by taking on the likeness of man and gave His life for us. (Phil. 2:5-8) It states “The chastening for our well being fell upon Him”, meaning He took our place on the cross, our substitutionary. In the Old Testament God had the high priest offer up holy and unblemished sacrifices for sins to be atoned for, and in the same way Jesus sacrificed Himself for mankind’s sins on the cross. Finally, it states “by His scourging” which is in reference to His shed blood, sacrifice, and His death on the cross was a sin offering which Isaiah 53:10 confirms. What Jesus and the Scriptures Teach
John 4:31-38 "31 Meanwhile the disciples were urging
Him, saying, "Rabbi, eat." 32 But He said to them, "I have food to eat that
you do not know about." 33 So the disciples were saying to one another, "No
one brought Him anything to eat, did he?" 34 Jesus said to them, "My food is
to do the will of Him who sent Me and to accomplish His work. 35 "Do you not
say, `There are yet four months, and then comes the harvest'? Behold, I say
to you, lift up your eyes and look on the fields, that they are white for
harvest. 36 "Already he who reaps is receiving wages and is gathering fruit
for life eternal; so that he who sows and he who reaps may rejoice together.
37 "For in this case the saying is true, `One sows and another reaps.' 38 "I
sent you to reap that for which you have not labored; others have labored
and you have entered into their labor." Jesus taught them that He had
food to eat and work to complete in reference to His sacrificial death on
the cross. Jesus will was to do that which the Father sent Him to do.
Does It Really Matter?
I said in the beginning does it
really matter what you believe about this subject, and I believe it does.
Stating that Jesus was separated from Father and became literal sin is
dangerous and here is why. To say Jesus became sin to which the Father
separated Himself from Him would indicate that a moment in time Jesus was
alone apart from the Father which would make Him unholy. If Jesus became
literal sin, then Jesus was no longer holy with the Father and no longer one with the
Father. If Jesus somehow lost for a moment the union with the Father then
Jesus would not be a worthy sacrifice for our sins. Did Jesus not have the
presence of the Holy Spirit with Him? The Bible says in Psalm 139:7 "Where
can I flee from Your Spirit? Or where can I flee from your presence?" There
is no way Jesus could not be in the very presence of the Holy Spirit, and
there is no way Jesus could loose His union with the Father. To be
literal about this, this teaching contradicts the very Scriptures concerning
what Jesus did and who He is. Jesus was the perfect lamb who shed His
blood and died on a cross to set us from living a sinless life. Jesus is the
lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world as John the Baptist said in
John 1:29.
There are those who teach that Jesus not only paid our dept with His body but with His Spirit of which He took our sins upon Himself which we would be eternally separated from the Father, Jesus died in our place. That may sound right but did Jesus really suffer our punishment on the cross? Some say Jesus took on the very nature of Satan on the cross by becoming sin, some say Jesus had to go to hell and suffer there and take our place (spiritual death) and on the third day rise again from the grave as the first born again man which opens the door for us to be saved. (Some of them are Joyce Meyer, Kenneth Copeland, Benny Hinn, Kenneth Hagin, Fred Price) Is that Biblical? The Bible clearly states that Jesus was sinless in Hebrews 4:15 which says: "For we do not have a high priest who can not sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been temped in all things as we are, yet without sin." The Bible clearly states Jesus work on the cross paid our dept in full as John 19:30 says: "Therefore when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, 'It is finished!' And He bowed His head and gave up His spirit." The Bible clearly states that Christ purchased the Church with His own blood as Acts 20:28 says: "Be on your guard for yourselves and for all the flock, among which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to shepherd the church of God which He purchased with His own blood." It was Jesus' physical death on the cross that satisfied the requirement for reconciliation from man to God, not the false teaching that Jesus tasted spiritual death for everyone by being separated from the Father on the cross. To teach that Jesus suffered in hell tasting spiritual death, became the very nature of Satan on the cross, that Jesus had to be born again in hell as the first born again person, and to teach this is the gospel message for our salvation and for our sins being atoned for is blasphemy and false gospel. To learn more about this check out our Faith Movement Section...
There is much more that could be quoted and commented on in this subject. I believe it is clear that Jesus knew exactly what He came to do and why the Father sent Him. Jesus continuously taught His disciples and the crowds what He came to do, of which Jesus fulfilled the will of God by being obedient to the point of death, even on a cross. You decide Biblically whether or not Jesus was separated from the Father, or Jesus believed it Himself. Those who teach that Jesus was separated from the Father have some serious issues that need to be resolved.. First is, that person does not understand the Gospel in it's simplicity; second is, that person is not representing what Jesus and the Apostles taught; third is, that person is not reading things in context from Scripture within the passage and as a whole; fourth is, that person has some red flags. I ask all who read this to pray, study, and seek the Lord concerning this issue and may God bless you
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